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  1. #1
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    Default Confusion about forex trading

    I know that every account starts with US dollars as base currency. However and I am confused about selling of other currencies.

    Lets take an example...
    I start with $1000 in my account. I then decide to sell GBP/USD currency pair and I am successful in doing so. Now, how was that transaction possible when I haven't got any GBP in my account, instead I have only $1000 - don't I need to buy GBP first and have it in my account in order to sell the GBP/USD pair?

    Lets take another example...
    I start with $1000 in my account. I then decide to sell GBP/AUD and am successful in doing so. How was that possible when my account only hold US dollars instead of GBP?

    Please can anyone explain what goes on in the examples cited above.

    Thankyou


  2. #2
    lissyking is offline Newbie
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    Slayer, I think the best thing you can do for yourself is to attend the school of Pipsology! Here's the link Forex Training & Education: Beginner Foreign Exchange Currency Trading
    There you will learn everything you need to know about currencies etc. Take care
    Last edited by lissyking; 12-10-2008 at 07:31 AM.

  3. #3
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    I have gone through basics, but I don't think it explains this particular thing in it.

  4. #4
    five_eights's Avatar
    five_eights is offline Newbie
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    Quote Originally Posted by Slayer View Post
    I have gone through basics, but I don't think it explains this particular thing in it.
    Know Your P’s and L’s | Pre-School: Forex Basics | Learn Forex Trading has everything you need to know. It's page 3 in lesson 3 of the School so pretty much in the basics.

  5. #5
    jawnlooi Guest
    Quote Originally Posted by Slayer View Post
    I know that every account starts with US dollars as base currency.
    Hi Slayer, there are brokers which accept different currencies as base currency. I use an EUR account for one.

    Let's imagine this scenario, a bank in Japan can give me a loan with 0.5% interest per annum. And a bank in Australia can give me an interest of 5% per annum if I put my money with them.

    Being the wise guy, i figure, hey why not I borrow from the Japan bank and put my money in the Australian bank and earn interest there? So I take a loan of 100 million yen, convert it to Aussie, and put it in their bank. So now I have 1.63 million Australian dollars earning interest in an Aussie bank.

    This is how you can transact without using any USD per se. I have just made went long on AUDJPY; essentially selling the second currency and buying the first with that money.

    Yet at the same time no bank would give you a loan without a guarantee right? So then they take 1% as 'safekeeping money'. (Actually I'm not too sure why we have margins but that is irrelevant to your question)

    If I take out my money one day later, after the daily calculation of interest, I have an extra AUD$223.29 because of interest. (of course we now have to then calculate the yen's loan interest blahblah) but fundamentally you need to know that this is called swap/rollover and it happens at 5pm EST.

    Not taking the interest into account, lets say the exchange rate jumps from 100Yen = 1.63 AUD to 100Yen = 1.62 AUD. With just the exchange rate alone, I have made 100 pips. I can cancel both loans/deposits and get more Yen than I put in. In a trading account, the pips will then be converted back into USD so it can be credited to my trading account.

    I hope I havent lost you

  6. #6
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    So what I understand from your post is that the forex broker loans us the GBP via leverage in order for us to sell it and buy the USD in the GBP/USD example I cited above. Is that what you meant?

  7. #7
    Join Date
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    Another thing. What happens at 5pm ? You get billed by your broker is the change ratio is negative or he's funding you if the ratio is positive ? Or nothing is happening ?

  8. #8
    tymen1 is offline Banned FX-Men Honorary Member
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    Quote Originally Posted by Slayer View Post
    So what I understand from your post is that the forex broker loans us the GBP via leverage in order for us to sell it and buy the USD in the GBP/USD example I cited above. Is that what you meant?
    Hello there!!

    Just passing thro while on holidays.

    I will be back formally in February next year.

    I see that there are a lot of newbies here since I completed my work on this forum in November!!

    To answer your question.........

    NO you have not got it correct!!

    Your computer program converts your USD for GBP according to the current exchange rate.

    You now have GBP and your computer can work with that in trading GBP/AUD.

    At the end of the trade a conversion is done, and the profit or loss is changed back into USD (at the current rate) or whatever base currency you have set as a default on your program.

    In my case, the base default is AUD since I am in Australia.
    All my trades are switched back to AUD after completing the trade.

    Hope this helps.

    See you in February!!

  9. #9
    tymen1 is offline Banned FX-Men Honorary Member
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    Quote Originally Posted by bolten View Post
    Another thing. What happens at 5pm ? You get billed by your broker is the change ratio is negative or he's funding you if the ratio is positive ? Or nothing is happening ?
    Learn about rollovers.

    Very important!!

  10. #10
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    Thankyou very much, I understand it now!

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