Sorry (I don't seem to be able to edit my last message) - I just re-read your reply.
I think the confusion comes in because you have the (my) figures swapped around:
Quote:
So if you buy 4 $10,000 lots at 200:1 leverage your total used margin would be $200 and you would be charged/payed interest based on $40,000.
If you bought 1 $10,000 dollar lot at 50:1 leverage your total used margin would still be $200 but you would only be charged/payed interest based on the $10,000.
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What I am trying to say is:
So if you buy 4 $10,000 lots at 200:1 leverage your total used margin would be $200 and you would be charged/payed interest based on $40,000.
If you bought 1 $40,000 dollar lot at 50:1 leverage your total used margin would still be $200 but you would only be charged/payed interest based on the $40,000.
On second though - I'm still confused when I read my changes above.
All I'm trying to make sure basically is the following:
Does $50.00 lots with leverage of 200:1 have the same 'bang for buck' and $200.00 lots with leverage of 50:1???
Regards,
Dale.