Greetings,
Newbie question
In the school article ‘Pips and Pipettes’ is says to find the value of a pip in USD, you should follow the following formula (as an example)
•USD/CAD at 1.4890
.0001 divided by exchange rate = pip value
.0001 / 1.4890 = 0.00006715
I think that the formula should be multiply rather than divide (i.e. .0001 * 1.489 = .0001489). Am I correct?
Snakeoids.