Hello, jonboy
That’s a lot of questions in one post! — Let’s take them in order.
At one point in your post, you mentioned spread-betting. We don’t do spread-betting in the U.S. (where I am), so all of my answers here are based on spot forex trading. If spread-betting is different, you’ll have to get the differences explained to you by somebody else.
In spot forex trading, there are two “kinds” of leverage: the maximum leverage that your broker will allow you to use, and the amount of leverage you actually use. Margin is based on the first kind. Margin is the inverse of the maximum leverage your broker will allow you to use.
So, for example, if your broker will allow you to use UP TO 100:1 leverage, then margin will be 1/100 or 1% of every trade. It won’t matter how much leverage you actually use — the margin amount will be 1% of the notional value of your trade.
Let’s go through an example. You have £500 in your account. Your broker allows you to use UP TO 100:1 leverage. You buy 0.1 lot of GBP/USD (this is a £10,000 position size, or £10,000 notional value). Immediately, we know two things: (1) your broker will set aside £100 of your money as margin (that’s 1% of your position size), and (2) the actual leverage you are using is 20:1 (because your position is 20 times as large as your account balance).
Returning to your question, when you say 3:1 leverage, are you talking about the maximum leverage your broker will allow you to use, or actual leverage used?
If you are saying that your broker will allow you to use UP TO 3:1 leverage, then the corresponding margin amount on a 0.01 lot trade (of EUR/USD) would be 333.3 euro (converted to £ at the current exchange rate, and charged to your account).
On the other hand, if you are saying that 3:1 is the amount of leverage you actually used on this trade, then the margin calculation will not be based on 3:1. It will be based (as always) on whatever maximum leverage your broker allows you to use.
I understand that the higher the leverage setting, the lower will be the margin requirement. Correct? Lower the leverage = higher the margin
Margin = 1 / leverage, and Leverage = 1 / margin. Therefore —
100:1 leverage corresponds to 1% margin
50:1 leverage corresponds to 2% margin
20:1 leverage corresponds to 5% margin, etc.
Generally, in spot forex trading, we don’t “set” the maximum allowable leverage in our accounts. That is set by the broker, as part of his standard conditions. So, when you use the term “leverage setting”, if you’re referring to spread-betting, then you’ll have to get your answer from somebody else.
1 lot trade eur/usd
100,000 euros / 100 leverage = 1000 euros = £869 margin requirement…?
what is margin requirement for 500:1 leverage trade? 200euros?
[B]what about 3:1 leverage? [/B]
In this example (position size 100,000 euro):
100:1 leverage = 1,000 euro margin
500:1 leverage = 200 euro margin
3:1 leverage = 33,333 euro margin
so this will be the initial margin they tie up.
so it has [B]nothing [/B]to do with stop loss distance?
in spreadbetting i have learnt that point/pip value x stop loss = margin.
Correct. Margin can be thought of like “escrow”. A portion of your money (the margin amount) is “set aside”; and (for the duration of your trade), this amount is not available to you to cover losses, to be withdrawn from your account, etc. When your trade is closed, your margin is “returned” to you — that is, it is no longer encumbered or tied up.
The size of your stop-loss (which represents your risk on this trade) does not affect margin.
Again, I can’t help you with spread-betting questions.
before i put on an fx trade, what questions should i ask: ?
- stop loss x pip value = total potential loss
- the margin requirement required
…but could total potential loss amount temporarily be increased, margin wise, as the position is losing more…?
i have noticed that say if a specific amount is tied up in margin when opening a trade, when the position gets into more loss, the margin amount tied up is increasing in real time.
Brokers typically use the terms “available margin” and “used margin”, and during the dynamics of an open trade, these amounts vary as the price of the underlying instrument varies. Generally, it works like this:
When you have no open positions, your entire account balance is “available margin”. Let’s say you have £500 in your account, and no open positions. Your “used margin” is zero, and your “available margin” is £500.
When you open a position, your broker sets aside margin (based on allowable leverage). Let’s say that you have 100:1 allowable leverage, and you open a £5,000 position in the GBP/USD. £50 margin (1% of your £5,000 position) is set aside. As soon as you open your GBP/USD position, you are in a loss situation, because of the spread. So, now your “used margin” is £50 + the value of the spread, and your “available margin” is your account balance - your “used margin”.
Suppose price moves against you, producing a loss in your position. Now your “used margin” is £50 + the spread + the loss due to price movement. And your “available margin” (as always) is your account balance - your “used margin”.
I hope that clears things up for you.