How do you calculate the number of pips based from ATR. Am I correct ot say that, for this example, the EUR/USD current ATR rate measures at 0.0113, so the volatility of that segment of time will be around 113 pips? Foe GBP/JPY’s ATR rate of 2.0477 would be equivalent to 204 pips?

That looks right.

Thank you rhody