Good to hear from you again.
The concept implied in post 6 is clear: The ratios between the 3 SMAs are the same as those between the three time frames, but it took me a while to see how you came up with 1800 in W1 ( “For W1-D1-H4, use 60 SMA, 360 SMA, and 1800 SMA on the H4 chart”) until I realized that W1 represents 5, not 7, days for the forex week. There are 30 H4s in a forex week. 30 X 60 = 1800. Bravo!
If I wanted to go Month1-W1-D1, it seems that I’d be using 360 for the D1, 1800 for the W1, and 7200 (1800 X 4) to approximate the Mn1 SMA. Correct?
Having said all of that, that still leaves the matter of the ATR readings not being in sync with the time frame ratios, which seems to be in conflict the assumption above, that the SMAs should be in sync with the time ratios. There are 12 M5s in an H1, but the ATRs are not in the ratio of 1:12. At this moment, for EURUSD, the ATR on M5 is 0.00024, but the ATR for H1 is 0.00150, which are in the ratio of 1:6.25, not 1:12. This, of course, leads to the question: Should the SMAs be in sync with the ATR ratios or with the time frame ratios? If you’d like to field this, that would be great; but if you’d like others to deal with this as per your above response, that’s cool, too.
As to the matter of Andy’s 3-step method, your point is well taken. Once I determine that price is on the same of the 60 SMA on the 3 frames (no matter how I determine it), I do intend to inspect each frame separately in keeping with each frame’s purpose.
Mahalo, Clint (Mahalo: Thanks in Hawaiian. I’ve been in Hawaii since 1971, almost before the Hawaiians got here.)