I am a little confused as to how Google doesn’t provide information on what a pip is.
On all pairs not involving the Japanese yen a pip is a movement in currency value at .0001 in pairs involving jpy it is .01
I don’t know how tech savvy you are but wiki pip.
thanks sulyice and akeakamai I guess I wanted confirmation more than anything I got the .0001 from a google search but needed confirmation because getting something from one source only I have found not to always be reliable. And also I was still puzzled a bit about you comment sulyice on the post you made on an earlier page saying
Also something that makes me not believe forex is 50:50 at any point is that if you let say 3000 ticks occur I highly doubt it will show a distribution close to that in price values.
I’m still wondering about this as to why it would be so. Why different than what it should be unless you didn’t take into account your brokers fee’s of 30% or whatever it is. Thanks again for the info all (come to think of it when actually exchanging money in hard currency at a bank or wherever I have often been given less than the actually value registered at the time onscreen). I would like to know why that is, why would a pip not really be a pip?
What I was trying to say was that driving factors behind price will keep it far from a 50 50 chance of up vs down hence why trends establish. You will only be likely to find a 50 50 in areas of ranging markets.