Follow up (sorry).
Okay. So if I fund an account with $20,000, using 5:1 leverage (not margin, lol) to purchase a standard lot of approximately $100,000 (for the sake of argument making all the numbers whole and even, as I think I understand now the procedure for figuring out the true and precise figures), the pip value is roughly $10 per pip.
Hence, however many pips I “capture” upon exiting whatever trade I enter will be multiplied by roughly $10 while, similarly, a margin call to my account–should things go poorly–would require me to cover however many pips down I am at that moment multiplied by roughly $10, yes? (I’m under the impression, btw, that the difference between the bid and ask prices changes these numbers slightly, but would like to gloss over that for the moment for the sake of getting a perfectly clear understanding of the mechanics of the whole procedure).
Therefore, I can go 100 pips up and collect my $1,000, or down 100 pips and be asked by the broker to fork over $1,000, and the fact that I have leveraged at 5:1 in no way affects that, correct? The role played by leverage, then, is merely in determining the value of each pip and, again, I would need to move 100 pips to the bad in order to be asked by the broker for $1,000 to cover my position. That sounds like how this works.
Please tell me I finally have some small grasp on this. I have a head like a cement block but, trust me, am a very nice person (well, my mom likes me, anyway). Again, thanks again and again and again.