Hello, I am relatively new to the Forex Market and I am trying to go over some concepts in the babypips School of Pipsology course. In the “Binary Options 101” part of the course listed here: https://www.babypips.com/learn/forex/what-are-options they gave the following example:
"For example, let’s say you want to buy a piece of land that is currently worth $100,000.
You think it will rise in value by another $30,000 one year from now, but you don’t want to tie up $100,000 for a year in that investment.
The seller of the land offers to sell an option contract to you to purchase the land for $100,000 (strike price) one year from now.
The seller offers the contract at a $5,000 premium. You agree, pay the $5,000 to the seller for the contract and wait to see if the value rises.
Let’s say in one year, the land value increases to $130,000. You decide to exercise your right to purchase the land at the agreed price (the strike), pay the owner the $100,000 contract price and now you own the land.
Your profit on the land is the current value, $130,000, minus the purchase price (strike) plus the contract premium: $130,000 – ($100,000 + $5,000) = $25,000.
Alternatively, let’s say that in one year, the land falls in value to $80,000. You are not obligated to exercise the contract and you obviously decide not to buy the land because it has fallen in value.
Your only loss is the premium paid ($5,000) to the option seller. As you can see, options are a great alternative to play your market ideas with very limited risk."
I understand that the example above applies to an investor buying a call option. My question is, how would an investor buying a put option be applied to an example like this?