Hi everybody, I am reading a book called “Mathematical Methods for Foreign Exchange” and I am not quite sure I understand the very first (quite unexplained) equation there. It’s supposed to express a price of a zero coupon bond at time t as:
where the
refers to the price at time t = 0 of the obligation to pay $1 dollar at time T in the future. In my opinion, the (constant)
could be something like $0.613913 for a 10-years bond at yield of 5%. I am not sure what would be the graph of
. I tend to think that it models prices for ever more distant maturity dates, so if the t is in the (0, 10) years interval, the value at t = 0 should be $1 and the value at t = 10 should be those $0.613913, i.e. equal to
. For those two values, the
should be 0.613913 (for t = 0) and 1 (for t = 10) respectively. That makes sense. But I have a problem with the values in between. I am trying to picture the graph of the intermediate values of
like this (modeling using t in <0, 1> interval):
If the graph of
above is correct, then the graph of
looks like this (continued in the next post…)