Hi can anyone clarify this for me “Their system then sorts these bid and ask quotes from best to worst. In this case, the best price in the bid side is 1.3000 (you want to sell high) and the best price on the ask side is 1.3001 (you want to buy low” is 1.3000 higher than 1.3001 if yes how?
No; 1.3000 is lower than 1.3001, in forex-trading as in other contexts. 
I [I]think[/I] so, yes: the “bid price” is what the broker is willing to pay you, if you want to sell, and the “ask price” is what the broker is asking from you, to sell to you, if you want to buy.
The gap between the 1.3000 and 1.3001 figures quoted represents the broker’s spread on transactions: naturally, they’ll buy from you at a fractionally lower price than the one at which they’ll sell to you, so the ask price is one pip (in this example) higher than the bid price.
PS: here’s the page from the BabyPips School in which bid and ask prices (and quote and base currencies) are defined and explained.
Market maker, might this broker is dealing desk broker which if any trader open trades hence these order still hold on broker and not forwarding to interbank market, and usually if this broker want to making loss trader because if trader loss hence broker will profit, and might we ever hear about stop loss hunter
Did you actually read the OP’s question at all, Bearish? Or have you posted in the wrong thread by mistake? This has [I]absolutely nothing[/I] to do with the thread at all … 