In keeping to [I]Vijay’s[/I] original strategy in which there are 3 orders with 3 different profit targets and with a percentage allocation to guarantee that the first order produces a profit even if the 2nd and 3rd are a loss, I would like to suggest the following alteration to the percentage allocation which in my view is mathematically more advantageous.
However, I do need to point out that my formula is based on equal probabilities of all outcomes which I know is not true. In order to be totally accurate I would need to factor in those probabilities. However, even though I am not doing so yet (maybe at a later stage), I feel that the following suggestions would still be more favourable and mathematically more sound than [I]Vijay’s[/I] original allocations of [I]60%, 20%, 20%[/I]; which seem to be arbitrary as far as I can guess.
My suggestion is thus as follows.
Let the values be as such:
[ul]
[li]“a” represents the percentage allocation for the 1st order with R:R=1
[/li][li]“b” represents the percentage allocation for the 2nd order with R:R=2
[/li][li]“c” represents the percentage allocation for the 3rd order with R:R=3
[/li][/ul]
And the conditions to be met in order to improve profitability, should be as follows:
[ol]
[li]“a + b + c = 100%” (So that total loss is our total risk amount, no more, no less).
[/li][li]“a >= ( b + c )” (Therefore we infer from point 1, that “a >= 50%”. This is so that the first order makes a profit, or breaks-even, even if the other two are a loss).
[/li][li]“2 * b >= a” (Therefore we infer from points 1 & 2, that “b >= 25%”. This is so that the 2nd order of R:R=2 can be equal or more profitable than the first of only R:R=1).
[/li][li]“3 * c >= 2 * b” (Therefore we infer from points 1,2 & 3, that “c >= 16,667%”. This is so that the 3rd order of R:R=3 can be equal or more profitable than the 2nd of only R:R=2).
[/li][/ol]
So, in order to meet the above conditions and maximise returns, our ratios of “a:b:c” is “50%:25%:16.667%” or the equivalent of “a:b:c = 6:3:2”. So calculating the values gives us the following valid distribution:
[B]“a = 54,545%”, “b=27.273%” and “c=18,182%”[/B]
This would give the following gains for the following outcomes:
[B][ul]
[li]Loss, Loss, Loss = 100% Loss (of Risk%)
[/li][li]Profit, Loss, Loss = 9.090% Profit (of Risk%)
[/li][li]Profit, Profit, Loss = 90.909% Profit (of Risk%)
[/li][li]Profit, Profit, Profit = 163,637% Profit (of Risk%)
[/li][/ul][/B]
Compare this to the original [I]60%, 20%, 20%[/I] which gives the following:
[I][ul]
[li]Loss, Loss, Loss = 100% Loss (of Risk%)
[/li][li]Profit, Loss, Loss = 20% Profit (of Risk%)
[/li][li]Profit, Profit, Loss = 80% Profit (of Risk%)
[/li][li]Profit, Profit, Profit = 160% Profit (of Risk%)
[/li][/ul][/I]
This is just food for thought, because to really maximise returns it would be best to also factor in the probability of each outcome and adjust values in accordance to those probabilities in order to improve the profit factor. If I have time, I will do just that next time, for EUR/USD and GBP/USD for the year 2013.
Best regards,
Carnino