Hello, babypips forums!
I was recently referred to this website, in particular to your school (and to forex trading, really). In an online videogame, of all places
Since then, Iāve been attending pre-school as a good boy
After a while, I reached a part in a lesson that confused me (surely this will be the first of many :rolleyes:):
āA cross currency is any pair in which neither currency is the U.S. dollar. (ā¦) Initiating a long (buy) EUR/GBP is equivalent to buying a EUR/USD currency pair and selling GBP/USD. Cross currency pairs frequently carry a higher transaction cost.ā
I donāt understand how you can conclude this equivalence.
What my reasoning tells me is that, if my account is in USD, and I want to buy EUR/GBP (Buying EUR by selling GBP, right?), I would need to:
1Āŗ - Buy GBP/USD - because I need to sell the USD in my account to get the GBP I need in order to buy EUR/GBP.
2Āŗ - Buy EUR/GBP - with the GBP I acquired in step 1Āŗ.
I understand that the steps in my reasoning have the same downside of the steps stated in the lesson: they are TWO. Two transactions to do one trade, so you pay transaction costs (spreads) twice.
What I donāt get is how buying EUR/GBP would equal buying EUR/USD and selling GBP/USD.
Iām sure this is a case of me not thinking as a trader yet, but can someone please try to enlighten me?
Thank you very much.