So everywhere in my reading I see the 2% Rule - Don’t risk more than 2% of your trading capital on any one trade.
This makes sense to me, seeing as elsewhere in my reading I see that many FOREX trading accounts often offer 50:1 margin. So if I have a $1000 trading account, 2% of that is $20. And $20 leveraged at 50:1 margin is $1000.
That means that if I go long on a currency, my $20 allows me to control $1000 of that currency. And if, for what ever reason, the currency I go long on suddenly goes to ZERO, then the maximum I would need to pony up for a margin call is what I already have in my trading account, $1000. As long as I followed the 2% Rule then I would never have to reach into my own pocket to cover a margin call.
What I’m wondering is, what if my broker only offers, say, 20:1 margin? Could I then up my positions to 5% of my trading account per trade?
Now I [I]KNOW[/I] I’m ignoring a [I]TON[/I] of other considerations - Out of every 100 trades I win [I]X%[/I] of them, and when I lose I lose [I]$Y[/I] but when I win I win [I]Z($Y)[/I], therefore my Risk of Ruin for a statistical clustering of two Standard Deviations is etc., etc…
But that’s just it, I’m ignoring them.
Is the 2% Rule pegged to 50:1 margin, and if I only have 20:1 margin available can I go to 5%?