Greetings. I have been trying to improve my use of correlation values to diversify risk when trading multiple pairs concurrently. Typically, given a signal for a prospect trade that includes values for the correlation of the prospect pair with currently open or pending orders. If x = correlation value, then my target would be to keep all pairs in the range -0.35 < x < 0.35.
I have decided that I might be doing this all wrong for the following reasons:
- By not considering likely future correlation between pairs for the duration of the trade(s)
- By not looking at the relevant property for effective diversification
The first point, predicting if the pairs will continue to correlate in the target range for the time horizon of the trade(s).
Secondly, correlation values are usually calculated using the prices of each instrument in sequence in a time interval rather than the change in prices of each instrument in suquential time. So which one is better?
I have written a quick indicator to compare the two and have the following results from the graphs:
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Price based correlations tend to swing more widely between -1 and 1. If you compare USDCHF & EURUSD which are highly negatively correlated, most of the time the price based correlation value will sit below -0.65 whilst at other times it could be as high as +.65.
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Conversely relative price change based correlation is very steady, the USDCHF vs EURUSD example is almost always below -0.7.
I tried a simplified comparision in excel looking at 2 sequences of numbers , one sequence starting at 1 and the other starting at a 100. In both cases I increased the prices by 1 over the next 49 cells to give the sequence:
- (1) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7…48 and
- (2) 100,101,102…,.147
In case 1 (price based) the correlation value was 1 and in case 2 (change of price based) the correlation value was 0.45.
In sequence one the price increased 48 fold in 49 price changes from 1 to 48. In sequence two the price increased by 47% in the same time.
Case two appears to be better on the face of it, but if you are entering trades in two pairs with a fixed TP & SL of the same pip values for both pairs then the absolute price move is more important (so case 1 wins).
If you are comparing pairs like USDJPY (109.6…) to EURUSD (1.171…) then case 2 might be the better choice. Not sure.