In the portion of the lesson towards the end, How the heck do I calculate profit and loss?, where the heck does the difference of $62.60 go from the 2 pips supposedly gained in the given transacted example ($200 gain)? Why is the value calculated of $137.40 relevant to grasp versus the 2 pips being the equivalent of $200? I am not making the connection in the lesson clearly.
-APL
Hello Aaron,
The price move was 20 pips, not 2 pips.
Also, I have no idea where you got the figure $62.60 — there is no such figure in this example.
Go back and study the example again, using the correct 20-pip profit, and discarding that $62.60 figure.
The math in the School example is correct.
Using the pip-value ($6.87 per pip) calculated previously in this lesson,
$6.87 per pip x 20 pips = $137.40
By the way, welcome to this forum 
I mis-typed the total pips, I understood it to be 20, not my issue. My misunderstanding is the relevance of the calculation for $137.40. Why is the $6.87 per pip a value to be concerned over? How is the $137.40 a number considered to be the calculable profit? Unless the $200 gained by the spread is somehow not the real number earned (20 pips in this case at standard unit). That is where the difference of $62.60 comes into view on my end. The math I follow fine, the concept behind it is my issue. The example does not really explain this well for me, unless that is deliberate.
There is no $200 profit in this trade.
There is a profit of 200 Swiss francs (because the quote currency in this trade is CHF). And that would be fine, if the account were denominated in CHF.
But, obviously, it is assumed that the trader’s account is denominated in USD. Therefore, the 200 CHF profit must be converted to USD. This is done using the ASK price for USD/CHF at the time the trade was closed.
At the time the trade was closed, the ASK price was USD/CHF = 1.4555.
200 CHF ÷ 1.4555 CHF / USD = 137.41 USD =$137.41 (rounded).
I assure you, there is no “deliberate” attempt to confuse you.
For the time being I’ll say your reply is silly. You’ve had a post from someone who is extremely experienced and one of the few who explains things fully and you’re finishing your reply with this?! You need to re-think your attitude and come back after you’ve had a cold shower. You wont get far in trading or in life if you bite the hand that is feeding you. Welcome to babypips! 
Much obliged on the response. I misunderstood the quote vs base in the instance for 20 pips to arrive at 200 Swiss francs, not $200 USD. As well, appreciate the other formula to arrive at $137.40, that actually makes more sense than (0.001/1.4550*100000). Now I better understand the intersection of the values. Appreciate the rapid assistance.