The finest in trend trading

Yup same here!
Looking forward to next lessons! :smiley:

Hi IronHeart :slight_smile:
Since tymen didnā€™t release the rules for now I would recommended trading first part of BB from squeezes until the first candle free tof touch BB (unless you know for sure its BB bubble type)

This is the most valuable and interesting part to trade which is fast money

That why I was asking you to code an alarm first free of touch BB. Any luck?
Also I have other idea ā€¦ with your programming skill we can be rich fast :rolleyes: :slight_smile:

Graviton, your common trading rules you have described are very helpful for me thanks :slight_smile:

Iā€™ve been very busy lately so didnā€™t get much time to do coding, but iā€™ll look more into it now.

Also, could you explain to me what you meant with the first part of the BB?

I didnā€™t understand what you were referring to :confused:

Hi Tymen,

Thanks for sharing this with us all. Iā€™ve been following along silently since the beginning of this thread (I enjoyed studying your candlestick method immensely, also).

While youā€™ve been busy moving, Iā€™ve been reviewing the thread, and had a question about one of the charts you posted.

In the chart Iā€™ve attached, you classified trade 4 as an OO (pink) trade, and indeed, the PA does move completely from one BB to the other. However, after taking TP1, if we moved our stop-loss to break-even (as I understand we should), would we not be stopped out of the trade before taking TP2?

In fact, even TP1 seems a doubtful profit, as it appears it would be swallowed by the spreadā€¦

Doubtless I am misunderstanding something here :confused: - please enlighten me! :smiley:


As a side-note, I was curious about the abbreviations used here; looking back over the posts I cannot seem to find any previous explanation. Did I miss something?

[B]OBB
OO
OM
RO[/B]

OO means Outer Bollinger Band to Outer Bollinger Band
OM means Outer Bollinger Band to Middle Bollinger Band
These are refferring to pa travel. Not sure what the others mean.

Please tell me that your rules, underlined below, are referring to an upward bubble and sausage. Iā€™ve been trying to understand it in reference to the picture below itā€¦and my brain got a cramp. But then I also just went back and took the test over again on page 122 (answers on page125) and I did worse (4 wrong) than my first go around. Frustrating!

Hi Merchant prince
see post #2031

OO = outer BB to opposite BB, mid BB in agreement with trade direction
OM = Outer BB to middle BB, Mid BB against direction
RO = is a rversal and loser
OBB = Is a BB walk , mid BB in strong agreement

Hi PTB
I understand what you are saying.
If the trend is in a downward direction, as per the diag. when Pa leaves the BB at point ā€œAā€ and does [B]not[/B] return to the low of the candle at point A, we have a bubble. and a potential long trade. If, however , Pa returns to and continues lower than the low of candle A then we have a sausage. If the trend is upward then the reverse applies

Hi mk

looking at the chart, it is possible that TP1 was not achieved at the 6 candle, in which case Sl would not have been moved. Later at candle 12, Pa clearly passes the mid BB for TP1 and a move to B/E for SL and continues on for TP2

Thanks for the reply, kockneerebel!

I understand what youā€™re saying, and I agree, itā€™s quite possible TP1 was not actually reached at candle 6. In that case, would we not close the trade for a loss once the price retraced below the 38.2% fibonacci level a couple of candles later? Tymen has mentioned that as the correct course of action in the event that PA does not reach the mid-BB. (I cannot find the specific post where he mentioned that, but I can dig it up if you like)

Even if we ignored the 38.2% fib retracementā€¦then at candle 12, the point where you (correctly) state that the mid-BB is breached, it is in fact lower than our entry, thus a loss. If we then moved our stop-loss to ā€œbreak-evenā€ (our CBL entry), PA would already be below it!

Any thoughts? Iā€™m not trying to be a nuisance, so I hope it doesnā€™t come off that way. I genuinely want to make sure I have this all clear in my mind.

Thanks again! :slight_smile:

Hi mk
not a problem. Tymens #2117 mentions about using fibs when in a winning trade, there may be room for clarification here. Another method mentioned is to let the trade either hit S/L or TP. As you rightly say we cannot move a S/L to a negative B/E. I hope that Tymen can enlighten further

The choice of using the 38.2% retracement line just when a bubble has begun is probably not a great idea if you are trading the method shown.

The reason is because of the definition of a bubble itself.

As defined just a few posts before, a bubble is a bubble unless price trades [B]below[/B] the lowest price point before it begins a retracement into the mid-BB.

If price does indeed trade below the lowest point after retracing towards the mid-BB, then we can confirm that the bubble has become a sausage and, thus, we no longer want to be in the trade.

As long as price trades above the lowest point in a bubble, then the bubble remains a bubble and youā€™ll want to stay in the trade.

It, therefore, makes sense to not exit the trade early at the 38.2% fib line and retain your original stop loss just below the lowest price point.

Having said this, there are rules still to come from Tymen, which could change the scenario - but this is my understanding up to this point.

Hope this helps.

Cheers mate,

Yeah, I see now that we wouldnā€™t apply the fib exit strategy here, as we are not in a ā€œprofit runningā€ situation .

If indeed price did not reach the mid-BB at candle 6, perhaps best to let it run, not take TP1 (it would be a loss) at candle 12, and then exit completely (do both TP1 and TP2) when it hits the upper BBā€¦

However, if Tymen was correct in showing a mid-BB hit at candle 6, then my original concerns still remain.

I hope ā€˜the masterā€™ will chime in to clear things up! :smiley:

Edit: Thanks also to IronHeart - missed your input while I was typing this up!
As mentioned above, I understand now that we would not apply the fib exit idea unless we are running our profits. It is perhaps most useful in a BB walk situationā€¦

Can I just get some clarification about the entry point for this system?

Iā€™ve been following with much interest, and am fairly certain that I understand the correct method, but looking back over some of the charts posted, I wouldnā€™t be entering for the ā€˜winning tradesā€™ when a winning trade is posted.

The way I think itā€™s supposed to work, is that a potential bubble begins to form. We then look for the opposite BB to the PA to start contracting, and then we enter. However, some of the charts posted have an entry when the opposite BB has been running parralel to the closest BB, and then contracts. is this not a sausage?

Some of the charts Tymen has posted have had this, and listed winning trades, but I thought we only traded bubbles?

Also, a fair number of the trades would potentially have us entering when the risk/reward would be offering a reward of less than 1:1 if we only hit TP1?

Iā€™m on a very basic work computer, so please excuse the extremely poor quality of the picture below. I think the first diagram is a correct entry only, am I right?

BB enter.bmp (776 KB)

Hi Cordite
sorry canā€™t make anything of your diags. As I understand things, we are looking to enter a reversal (new trend ) asap. At the start we donā€™t know if it will be a bubble or a sausage. However if we are lucky we find the start of a sausage and trade it to the end. A sausage has the potential for more profit if the BB walk is maintained. If you can find #post refs it may help to see what you are specifically looking at. Pa is important in determining whether bubble or sausage see #2257

Ah aye, they are poor diagrams.

Ok, in this Tymen post - here - the picture he posts shows numerous trades using the BB system.

However, looking at the opposite BB, it looks like a few of these trades would not have actually been entered, as the opposite BB is already contracting?

Look at trades 2, 3 , 5 & 7 in the post linked. None of them appear to be entering according to the rules.

There are various other charts posted too.

Now, Iā€™m not saying that the system doesnā€™t work, because when I follow the rules as I understand them in backtesting, there are plenty more winning trade than losing trades. But when I see examples such as in that post, I question my understanding of the system.

Cheers for the help.

OK, Iā€™m just not that patient, so Iā€™m doing what I always do when I get impatient. I study charts. LOTS of charts. Ten pairs in all time frames. It gives me something to do so I donā€™t get myself into trouble just because I feel I have to do something. The pairs I study are audusd, eurusd, usdchf, usdjpy, usdcad, nzdusd, gbpjpy, eurjpy, gpbusd and eurgpb. I have studied these pairs for years (I get impatient a lot). I have the longer term charts memorized and can pretty well draw the monthly, weekly, daily and hourly from memory on any of the ten at any time.

So Iā€™m studying these charts thinking, I want to turbo charge Tymenā€™s system and make the big bucks off it. But how to do that? Then I notice something very interesting. The big bucks are made from taking the OBB type trades early on and staying with them to completion.

Go back and study your charts and see if this isnā€™t true. Then after looking at 100 or so OBB trades, see if you can see a pattern emerging too :wink:

After rereading the posts by these two I have finalized my demo trading for next week. I am the worldā€™s worst scalper and trading the D. & W. to me is like watching grass grow. I will use the 1H for trend, the 30M for trades, and the 15M (maybe) for management. I will only trade Gravitonā€™s ā€œbubblicious.ā€ Should I understand this well enough so that next week is successful then May 1st will see the funded account go into action. Thanks all, d.